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HB
Guest
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| Posted: Sat Sep 24, 2005 10:29 pm
Post subject: Ilias versus Iliad |
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I watched the movie 'Troy' yesterday and noticed at the very end of the
films that the story was based on Homer's "Iliad".
Weird because in Flemish (and in a number of other languages) the book
is called 'Ilias'.
Does anyone know where this difference is coming from?
- Herman -
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John Briggs
Guest
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| Posted: Sat Sep 24, 2005 11:35 pm
Post subject: Re: Ilias versus Iliad |
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HB wrote:
| Quote: | I watched the movie 'Troy' yesterday and noticed at the very end of
the films that the story was based on Homer's "Iliad".
Weird because in Flemish (and in a number of other languages) the book
is called 'Ilias'.
Does anyone know where this difference is coming from?
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Greek - it depends on whether the derivation is from the nominative or the
genitive case.
--
John Briggs |
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HB
Guest
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| Posted: Mon Sep 26, 2005 12:25 am
Post subject: Re: Ilias versus Iliad |
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John Briggs wrote:
| Quote: | HB wrote:
I watched the movie 'Troy' yesterday and noticed at the very end of
the films that the story was based on Homer's "Iliad".
Weird because in Flemish (and in a number of other languages) the
book is called 'Ilias'.
Does anyone know where this difference is coming from?
Greek - it depends on whether the derivation is from the nominative
or the genitive case.
|
Thanks for the info but it is only a partial answer to my question. Why
does one language use one form and the other language the other?
- Herman -
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John of Aix
Guest
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| Posted: Mon Sep 26, 2005 12:34 am
Post subject: Re: Ilias versus Iliad |
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HB wrote:
| Quote: | John Briggs wrote:
HB wrote:
I watched the movie 'Troy' yesterday and noticed at the very end of
the films that the story was based on Homer's "Iliad".
Weird because in Flemish (and in a number of other languages) the
book is called 'Ilias'.
Does anyone know where this difference is coming from?
Greek - it depends on whether the derivation is from the nominative
or the genitive case.
Thanks for the info but it is only a partial answer to my question.
Why does one language use one form and the other language the other?
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Are you sure it is 'Ilias' in many other languages a (quick) Google
search only seems to turn up 'Ilias' in germanic languages, and the
original Greek. |
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Einde O'Callaghan
Guest
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| Posted: Mon Sep 26, 2005 1:09 am
Post subject: Re: Ilias versus Iliad |
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HB wrote:
| Quote: | John Briggs wrote:
HB wrote:
I watched the movie 'Troy' yesterday and noticed at the very end of
the films that the story was based on Homer's "Iliad".
Weird because in Flemish (and in a number of other languages) the
book is called 'Ilias'.
Does anyone know where this difference is coming from?
Greek - it depends on whether the derivation is from the nominative
or the genitive case.
Thanks for the info but it is only a partial answer to my question. Why
does one language use one form and the other language the other?
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I think this question is probably unanswerable since th forms
Ilias/iliad ha#ve existed in teh various languages for several hundred
years. Not all questions about language have a logical answer, I'm afraid.
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan |
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John Briggs
Guest
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| Posted: Mon Sep 26, 2005 5:54 am
Post subject: Re: Ilias versus Iliad |
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HB wrote:
| Quote: | John Briggs wrote:
HB wrote:
I watched the movie 'Troy' yesterday and noticed at the very end of
the films that the story was based on Homer's "Iliad".
Weird because in Flemish (and in a number of other languages) the
book is called 'Ilias'.
Does anyone know where this difference is coming from?
Greek - it depends on whether the derivation is from the nominative
or the genitive case.
Thanks for the info but it is only a partial answer to my question.
Why does one language use one form and the other language the other?
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OK, let's try to be systematic - what do you call the Aeneid?
--
John Briggs |
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Paul Burke
Guest
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| Posted: Mon Sep 26, 2005 2:50 pm
Post subject: Re: Ilias versus Iliad |
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HB wrote:
| Quote: | I watched the movie 'Troy' yesterday and noticed at the very end of the
films that the story was based on Homer's "Iliad".
Weird because in Flemish (and in a number of other languages) the book
is called 'Ilias'.
Does anyone know where this difference is coming from?
|
The French are quite unashamed about frenchifying classical names (the
one above will be pronounce Il y a, I expect). Look at this lot:
http://www.ai.univ-paris8.fr/corpus/lurcat/dara/ulysse.htm
Whereas the Brits mostly just englishify the pronunciation, as in
Yooliseas, Playtoe, Youripperdese, and The Mr Cleese.
Paul Burke |
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HB
Guest
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| Posted: Mon Sep 26, 2005 10:54 pm
Post subject: Re: Ilias versus Iliad |
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John Briggs wrote:
| Quote: | HB wrote:
John Briggs wrote:
HB wrote:
I watched the movie 'Troy' yesterday and noticed at the very end
of >>> the films that the story was based on Homer's "Iliad".
Weird because in Flemish (and in a number of other languages) the
book is called 'Ilias'.
Does anyone know where this difference is coming from?
Greek - it depends on whether the derivation is from the nominative
or the genitive case.
Thanks for the info but it is only a partial answer to my question.
Why does one language use one form and the other language the other?
OK, let's try to be systematic - what do you call the Aeneid?
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Aha, same thing happens here: we write 'Aeneïs'. Seems to be a
consistent discrepancy.
- Herman - |
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HB
Guest
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| Posted: Mon Sep 26, 2005 10:55 pm
Post subject: Re: Ilias versus Iliad |
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John of Aix wrote:
| Quote: | HB wrote:
John Briggs wrote:
HB wrote:
I watched the movie 'Troy' yesterday and noticed at the very end
of >>> the films that the story was based on Homer's "Iliad".
Weird because in Flemish (and in a number of other languages) the
book is called 'Ilias'.
Does anyone know where this difference is coming from?
Greek - it depends on whether the derivation is from the nominative
or the genitive case.
Thanks for the info but it is only a partial answer to my question.
Why does one language use one form and the other language the other?
Are you sure it is 'Ilias' in many other languages a (quick) Google
search only seems to turn up 'Ilias' in germanic languages, and the
original Greek.
|
Well, there are quite a few Germanic languages, hence 'many' languages.
But that's not really the main issue here.
Why is English different from the other Germanic languages?
- Herman - |
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John of Aix
Guest
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| Posted: Tue Sep 27, 2005 12:57 am
Post subject: Re: Ilias versus Iliad |
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Paul Burke wrote:
| Quote: | HB wrote:
I watched the movie 'Troy' yesterday and noticed at the very end of
the films that the story was based on Homer's "Iliad".
Weird because in Flemish (and in a number of other languages) the
book is called 'Ilias'.
Does anyone know where this difference is coming from?
The French are quite unashamed about frenchifying classical names (the
one above will be pronounce Il y a, I expect). Look at this lot:
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No, Iliad as in English, slightly longer 'I' of course. But otherwise
what you say is true, as the link confirms, they do mainly frenchify
words and that make sus Brits sound very posh when we say things in
'Latin'. |
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Giles Todd
Guest
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| Posted: Tue Sep 27, 2005 5:27 am
Post subject: Re: Ilias versus Iliad |
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On Mon, 26 Sep 2005 16:55:23 GMT, "HB" <hb@fakemail.net> wrote:
| Quote: | Why is English different from the other Germanic languages?
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For the same reasons that all Germanic languages differ from other
Germanic languages.
Giles |
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