Vocaboly.com

[Ben]

Is the '(' a valid math notation on the GMAT? I was doing a Princeton
Review test and ran across this.

I just ran across a math question in a review and I'm totally stumped
by the answer. Then I realized that I may have been misreading the
notation.

The question is:
If x, y, and z are nonzero numbers such that 1(y>x and xy=z, which of
the following CANNOT be true?
1) y>z
2) y=z
3) z=x
4) x>z
5) z>0

I think it's 4) x>z, but the answer in the review says it's 2) y=z.
However, when x=1, y=2, and z=2 it meets all of the criteria and y=z,
so #2 cannot be the answer. When looking at their explanation for why
#2 is the answer they say "because all of the other choises CAN be
true #2 must be the correct answer". Which, to me, is not only a BS
cop-out, but wrong.

Also, in the #4 explanation it says "According to the question, Y must
be greater to or equal to one". Thus *my* question on the notation.
Whatever happened to "<="? I should also state that nowhere else in
the review does it mention that the '(' to "<=" notation substitution
exists. I think it's just a shoddily put-together review.

I just want to know where they came up with that notation and how much
more made-up notation I need to be familiar with before I take the
test.

[Tobin Fricke]

Ben wrote: